Posted by LEO LIGHT
October 4, 2017

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From days of epics society to days of days of civic society, why female only is portrayed  as victim, why not male

According to the Ramayana if ravana touches sitha without her’s concern his heads would burst and split  as pieces, is its so how ravana was able to kidnap her  without touching sita

(Ref:When (however) stricken with love, he will violate a woman who is unwilling to approach him, his head will actually be split into seven pieces that (very moment) (Sloka 55). )

If its so how ravana could kidnap her  without approaching her, it’s a first paradox that if ravana was not affected by this curse.

If this rule is accepted at true for all occasions  why its not again happen again when bhishma kidnapped three girls amba, amibika, ambalika without  their willing.

And why was not happened to Dushathana when he disrobed panjali in the open court.

So whether its portrayed to to make a fame of female or to defame a male .

And now let me come to the now a days

Every one is very eager to discuss about “violence against women”, I just really amazing that what is violence against women, do they people think that only “sexual abuse” is a violence, at the same time why male is never been considered as victims by sexual abuse by female. What is the gender equality in this? Or is there any stereotypic view of female are inborn genuine characters.  And next thing is about “Dowry”, it’s the one of the main area of controversy at the time of marriage , My first question is whether dowry is in the  (volunteer )demand or (volunteer) supply, Let me give clear picture take a example of marriage when a dowry plays a vital role 99% of the bride family voluntarily offer dowry the so called “streedhana” for their “SOCIAL PRESTIGE” in front of their relatives and community elites to uphold their social outfit. Even tough if groom side not willing to accept anything they force them to get all those things if not we would be treated as very inferior among our relatives, so that groom side has no way to refuse to accept these things at the time of marriage to avoid unnecessary conflict.

But really what happens after marriage if any small dispute arise between couple they simply lodge compliant against  groom based on a the dowry prohibition act, 1961, But the same act mentioned that offering dowry is also an offence, then why this act always inclined towards female and treats female is a only victim. If they blindly consider as all the dowry material which is offered because of forceful demand from groom side.

Now my million dollar question is why government make law to ask bride and groom get due certificate with own concern  from local revenue authority or local police office as no willful demand or no willful offer takes place in this marriage, I don’t think its such a hectic task as government asked couple to register their marriage. Why its not possible to make it as mandatory without this certificate the dispute related to matrimonial relations wont be considered as legal point of view. Because The dowry prohibition act 1961 clearly says that giving dowry is also an offence then why male only being punished under the act.

And at the same time practically do you think are they no demands by bride side, Let me give some example,  Mostly bride and bride groom wants after marriage groom must come out his family and would establish a nuclear family, and groom must have own residence in his name, if property is in their parents name must be converted immediately to his/ hers name. And if the groom is NRI she immediately wants to settle in the respective country irrespective of their financial conditions, etc .If these things may refuse simply she don’t want to live together and file a case under the dowry prohibition act. Why this act excluded these things, even tough it couldn’t be prove by the groom side it’s the strong fact which is happen now a days.

And let me brief some important aspect of  DOMESTIC VIOLENCE ACT “  under the section of IPC 498A

This law prescribe that matrimonial cruelty by groom and their relatives against female. If its happen this law will hit the total family of groom and this offence is unbailable. At the same time if the bride is died (or commits sucide)  within 7 years of the commencement of the marriage it would be the main evidence of this offence. Now my question is if same groom will die (or commits sucide)  within 7 years of the commencement of the marriage it wont be consider as domestic violence , Then what is the gender equality in this.  And at last what government define about the word “Domestic”  why its consider if all happen s in grooms house , Actually how many girls/ females committed suicide because of the verbal abuse of their own parents regarding love related issues or exam failures, wont it be considered as domestic violence. Will it only suitable for after marriage and especially only in grooms home. If its also considered as domestic violence how many parents has been arrested and convicted.

And under IPC section 497 describes about adultery. Its  also inclined towards females, If any female even tough voluntarily commits adultery they may be consider as “victim” only , But the partner would be punishable, What is the scope of the law, if any female will forcefully make adultery with any male who is punishable here male or female? If the same male commits adultery it would be under the purview of  domestic violence act.

Actually I have mentioned some of the concepts only. And I kindly request Government should review this act and uphold gender equality.


With warm regards

SK.Muruganantham (Phd)


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